
Originally Posted by
Seán Ryan
That's what's known as a logical fallacy. And even if it wasn't, it doesn't even begin to get what the constitution has to say about the matter.
Firstly, your only recourse to address crimes committed against you, is through the courts, both in criminal and in civil actions. Secondly, crimes against you and your family, must have happened, in the past tense, before you can take legal action. Your fear of your neighbour, no matter how terrified you are, is not sufficient evidence, to bring either a criminal action or a civil action. The constitution recognises both your family and the family with the embedded past offender as equal and has having rights beyond the jurisdiction of any court to set at naught.
You should protect your family and you should do it in the face of any threat, that's a given. You must assess the threat, that's your business. On the other hand, the fallout from your assessment and its consequences are society's business. My opinion is that the standard you claim is upholding the constitution, is logically flawed and it doesn't even warrant a constitutionality argument.
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